thanks
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yes it is and it's called fornication Reply
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yeah it is..... Replydis shouldnt be a question
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of course it's a a sin Reply
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No it's not. Sin has to do with the violation of God's laws. If it's the violation of man's law then it is illegal. Under God's law when are two people considered married? Isn't it when a man simply 'takes' a woman and when they begin to have sex the marriage is consumated? No signing or priestly blessings or oaths or rings or death do us part. Under western's man's law if you don't register and sign and swear you are not married.Until then if you have sex it's unlawful or whatever term you want to use but IT IS NOT A SIN. Correct me if I'm wrong.(Now I'm ready to be crucified... today is best!) Reply
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am not sure if it is a sin or not........All i know is that it is counter productive to humans want of happiness. ReplyIt is natural that sex with someone for the first time is usually more explosive than that of the 500th time. So changing partners will only but improve ones experience of enjoyable sex. If everyone practises sleeping with everyone else and exchanging partners as soon as they get board, then we will have a situation where continuity of care for the infants is broken as relationships or sex partners change. Also, pregnancy comes with great responsibility. So choosing a companion to make a baby with is also ultimately important as pregnancy can always occur through segxwal intercourse. Also, because of experiencing different partners, humans can develop certain segxwal fantasy helped by experience, that their partners can not humanly live up to. So a debate understanding all these made it common sense to know that a guide line for how people interact segxwally with each other is important.
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u r asking if fornication is a sin?It is cos d bible says so though it is d 'ish' in d modern day Reply
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I've got no answer to dat... ReplyPple keep saying it's a sin while only 0.5% of the individuals here can prove his/her virginity. We've committed so much sins, should I say by wot we see, touch, hear or through our thinking? only The Most High can 4giv us. Sorry Poster, no answer to ur question.
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Fool, you have the answer? Reply
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guys no cover up on thisooo! na sin Reply
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Quote from: Originalsly on 2-04-2010 10:35 PM No it's not. Sin has to do with the violation of God's laws. If it's the violation of man's law then it is illegal. Under God's law when are two people considered married? Isn't it when a man simply 'takes' a woman and when they begin to have sex the marriage is consumated? No signing or priestly blessings or oaths or rings or death do us part. Under western's man's law if you don't register and sign and swear you are not married.Until then if you have sex it's unlawful or whatever term you want to use but IT IS NOT A SIN. Correct me if I'm wrong.(Now I'm ready to be crucified... today is best!) thank GOD you knw u'll be crusified! Sex with your patner b4 marriage is a big sin and as a man dnt try to turn the law of GOD to your own gain, you'll be doin ur self more wrong than good. In other words sex in a relationship b4 marriage is fornication and must be fought against by all cost. Thank you
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sex before marriage and after it is a sin. Replyhusband and wife can make sex just for making children not for pleasure... that says Bible but i don't agree with it...
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Quote from: Eriele on 30-04-2010 04:13 PM sex before marriage and after it is a sin. u'll neva agree husband and wife can make sex just for making children not for pleasure... that says Bible but i don't agree with it...
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Quote from: Eriele on 30-04-2010 04:13 PM sex before marriage and after it is a sin. husband and wife can make sex just for making children not for pleasure... that says Bible but i don't agree with it...
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does God bless people that have participated in breaking his laws i.e have sex out of wedlock? Or do we just interprete all these things in ways that complement what we does and allows for us to claim forgiveness of everything we do. actually does God partake also in comending people who break these laws. Reply
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LET HIM THAT HAS EAR ..... LET HIM HEAR .......... ReplyALL FORNICATORS , ADULTERER , ETC .....THAT MEANS RELATED SINS WILL HAVE THEIR PART IN THE LAKE OF HELL FIRE ........ THERE SHALL BE GNASHING OF TEETH DAY AND NIGHT .......... SO BE WISE MY THERE PALS
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Tell dem o! Reply
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Why did Matthew include four women in Joseph's genealogy? ReplyMatthew mentions four women in the Joseph's genealogy. a. Tamar - disguised herself as a harlot to seduce Judah, her father-in-law (Genesis 38:12-19). b. Rahab - was a harlot who lived in the city of Jericho in Canaan (Joshua 2:1). c. Ruth - at her mother-in-law Naomi's request, she came secretly to where Boaz was sleeping and spent the night with him. Later Ruth and Boaz were married (Ruth 3:1-14). d. Bathsheba - became pregnant by King David while she was still married to Uriah (2 Samuel 11:2-5). To have women mentioned in a genealogy is very unusual. That all four of the women mentioned are guilty of some sort of segxwal impropriety cannot be a coincidence. Why would Matthew mention these, and only these, women? The only reason that makes any sense is that Joseph, rather than the Holy Spirit, impregnated Mary prior to their getting married, and that this was known by others who argued that because of this Jesus could not be the Messiah. By mentioning these women in the genealogy Matthew is in effect saying, "The Messiah, who must be a descendant of King David, will have at least four "loose women" in his genealogy, so what difference does one more make?"
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Why did Matthew include four women in Joseph's genealogy? ReplyMatthew mentions four women in the Joseph's genealogy. a. Tamar - disguised herself as a harlot to seduce Judah, her father-in-law (Genesis 38:12-19). b. Rahab - was a harlot who lived in the city of Jericho in Canaan (Joshua 2:1). c. Ruth - at her mother-in-law Naomi's request, she came secretly to where Boaz was sleeping and spent the night with him. Later Ruth and Boaz were married (Ruth 3:1-14). d. Bathsheba - became pregnant by King David while she was still married to Uriah (2 Samuel 11:2-5). To have women mentioned in a genealogy is very unusual. That all four of the women mentioned are guilty of some sort of segxwal impropriety cannot be a coincidence. Why would Matthew mention these, and only these, women? The only reason that makes any sense is that Joseph, rather than the Holy Spirit, impregnated Mary prior to their getting married, and that this was known by others who argued that because of this Jesus could not be the Messiah. By mentioning these women in the genealogy Matthew is in effect saying, "The Messiah, who must be a descendant of King David, will have at least four "loose women" in his genealogy, so what difference does one more make?"
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Dat na ur own wahala quoter Reply![]()
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