Sex before marriage: is it a sin?

Date: 25-03-2010 11:29 pm (14 years ago) | Author: mike omoasegun
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- at 25-03-2010 11:29 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
A brother asked this question and I need your answers: Sex before marriage is it a sin?
thanks

Posted: at 25-03-2010 11:29 PM (14 years ago) | Newbie
- jennietobbie at 26-03-2010 04:27 PM (14 years ago)
(f)
yes it is and it's called fornication
Posted: at 26-03-2010 04:27 PM (14 years ago) | Newbie
Reply
- neossha at 27-03-2010 10:18 PM (14 years ago)
(f)
yeah it is.....
dis shouldnt be a question
Posted: at 27-03-2010 10:18 PM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- belindajustins at 29-03-2010 03:28 PM (14 years ago)
(f)
of course it's a a sin
Posted: at 29-03-2010 03:28 PM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- Originalsly at 2-04-2010 10:35 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
No it's not. Sin has to do with the violation of God's laws. If it's the violation of man's law then it is illegal. Under God's law when are two people considered married? Isn't it when a man simply 'takes' a woman and when they begin to have sex the marriage is consumated? No signing or priestly blessings or oaths or rings or death do us part. Under western's man's law if you don't register and sign and swear you are not married.Until then if you have sex it's unlawful or whatever term you want to use but IT IS NOT A SIN. Correct me if I'm wrong.(Now I'm ready to be crucified... today is best!)
Posted: at 2-04-2010 10:35 PM (14 years ago) | Upcoming
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- democrazy at 3-04-2010 01:33 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
am not sure if it is a sin or not........All i know is that it is counter productive to humans want of happiness.
It is natural that sex with someone for the first time is usually more explosive than that of the 500th time. So changing partners will only but improve ones experience of enjoyable sex. If everyone practises sleeping with everyone else and exchanging partners as soon as they get board, then we will have a situation where continuity of care for the infants is broken as relationships or sex partners change.
Also, pregnancy comes with great responsibility. So choosing a companion to make a baby with is also ultimately important as pregnancy can always occur through segxwal intercourse.

Also, because of experiencing different partners, humans can develop certain segxwal fantasy helped by experience, that their partners can not humanly live up to.

So a debate understanding all these made it common sense to know that a guide line for how people interact segxwally with each other is important.
Posted: at 3-04-2010 01:33 PM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- sabiti at 15-04-2010 11:40 AM (14 years ago)
(m)
u r asking if fornication is a sin?It is cos d bible says so though it is d 'ish' in d modern day
Posted: at 15-04-2010 11:40 AM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- schegzy at 15-04-2010 06:32 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
I've got no answer to dat...
Pple keep saying it's a sin while only 0.5% of the individuals here can prove his/her virginity.
We've committed so much sins, should I say by wot we see, touch, hear or through our thinking? only The Most High can 4giv us.
Sorry Poster, no answer to ur question.
Posted: at 15-04-2010 06:32 PM (14 years ago) | Upcoming
Reply
- attamem at 28-04-2010 12:50 AM (14 years ago)
(m)
Fool, you have the answer?
Posted: at 28-04-2010 12:50 AM (14 years ago) | Upcoming
Reply
- iyke1 at 30-04-2010 10:58 AM (14 years ago)
(m)
guys no cover up on thisooo! na sin
Posted: at 30-04-2010 10:58 AM (14 years ago) | Upcoming
Reply
- jigaxsol at 30-04-2010 11:10 AM (14 years ago)
(m)
Quote from: Originalsly on  2-04-2010 10:35 PM
No it's not. Sin has to do with the violation of God's laws. If it's the violation of man's law then it is illegal. Under God's law when are two people considered married? Isn't it when a man simply 'takes' a woman and when they begin to have sex the marriage is consumated? No signing or priestly blessings or oaths or rings or death do us part. Under western's man's law if you don't register and sign and swear you are not married.Until then if you have sex it's unlawful or whatever term you want to use but IT IS NOT A SIN. Correct me if I'm wrong.(Now I'm ready to be crucified... today is best!)
thank GOD you knw u'll be crusified! Sex with your patner b4 marriage is a big sin and as a man dnt try to turn the law of GOD to your own gain, you'll be doin ur self more wrong than good. In other words sex in a relationship b4 marriage is fornication and must be fought against by all cost. Thank you
Posted: at 30-04-2010 11:10 AM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- Eriele at 30-04-2010 04:13 PM (14 years ago)
(f)
sex before marriage and after it is a sin.
husband and wife can make sex just for making children not for pleasure... that says Bible
but i don't agree with it...
Posted: at 30-04-2010 04:13 PM (14 years ago) | Hero
Reply
- jigaxsol at 30-04-2010 10:03 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
Quote from: Eriele on 30-04-2010 04:13 PM
sex before marriage and after it is a sin.
husband and wife can make sex just for making children not for pleasure... that says Bible
but i don't agree with it...
u'll neva agree
Posted: at 30-04-2010 10:03 PM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- jigaxsol at 30-04-2010 10:06 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
Quote from: Eriele on 30-04-2010 04:13 PM
sex before marriage and after it is a sin.
husband and wife can make sex just for making children not for pleasure... that says Bible
but i don't agree with it...
Posted: at 30-04-2010 10:06 PM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- democrazy at 2-05-2010 11:48 AM (14 years ago)
(m)
does God bless people that have participated in breaking his laws i.e have sex out of wedlock? Or do we just interprete all these things in ways that complement what we does and allows for us to claim forgiveness of everything we do. actually does God partake also in comending people who break these laws.
Posted: at 2-05-2010 11:48 AM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- solid_solid at 3-05-2010 01:23 PM (14 years ago)
(m)
LET HIM THAT HAS EAR ..... LET HIM HEAR ..........


ALL FORNICATORS , ADULTERER , ETC .....THAT MEANS RELATED SINS WILL HAVE THEIR PART IN THE LAKE OF HELL FIRE ........ THERE SHALL BE GNASHING OF TEETH DAY AND NIGHT ..........

SO BE WISE MY THERE PALS
Posted: at 3-05-2010 01:23 PM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- jigaxsol at 4-05-2010 11:51 AM (14 years ago)
(m)
Tell dem o!
Posted: at 4-05-2010 11:51 AM (14 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
- Mzubairu at 13-05-2010 05:30 PM (13 years ago)
(m)
Why did Matthew include four women in Joseph's genealogy?
Matthew mentions four women in the Joseph's genealogy.
a. Tamar - disguised herself as a harlot to seduce Judah, her father-in-law (Genesis 38:12-19).
b. Rahab - was a harlot who lived in the city of Jericho in Canaan (Joshua 2:1).
c. Ruth - at her mother-in-law Naomi's request, she came secretly to where Boaz was sleeping and spent the night with him. Later Ruth and Boaz were married (Ruth 3:1-14).
d. Bathsheba - became pregnant by King David while she was still married to Uriah (2 Samuel 11:2-5).
To have women mentioned in a genealogy is very unusual. That all four of the women mentioned are guilty of some sort of segxwal impropriety cannot be a coincidence. Why would Matthew mention these, and only these, women? The only reason that makes any sense is that Joseph, rather than the Holy Spirit, impregnated Mary prior to their getting married, and that this was known by others who argued that because of this Jesus could not be the Messiah. By mentioning these women in the genealogy Matthew is in effect saying, "The Messiah, who must be a descendant of King David, will have at least four "loose women" in his genealogy, so what difference does one more make?"
Posted: at 13-05-2010 05:30 PM (13 years ago) | Newbie
Reply
- Mzubairu at 13-05-2010 06:06 PM (13 years ago)
(m)
Why did Matthew include four women in Joseph's genealogy?
Matthew mentions four women in the Joseph's genealogy.
a. Tamar - disguised herself as a harlot to seduce Judah, her father-in-law (Genesis 38:12-19).
b. Rahab - was a harlot who lived in the city of Jericho in Canaan (Joshua 2:1).
c. Ruth - at her mother-in-law Naomi's request, she came secretly to where Boaz was sleeping and spent the night with him. Later Ruth and Boaz were married (Ruth 3:1-14).
d. Bathsheba - became pregnant by King David while she was still married to Uriah (2 Samuel 11:2-5).
To have women mentioned in a genealogy is very unusual. That all four of the women mentioned are guilty of some sort of segxwal impropriety cannot be a coincidence. Why would Matthew mention these, and only these, women? The only reason that makes any sense is that Joseph, rather than the Holy Spirit, impregnated Mary prior to their getting married, and that this was known by others who argued that because of this Jesus could not be the Messiah. By mentioning these women in the genealogy Matthew is in effect saying, "The Messiah, who must be a descendant of King David, will have at least four "loose women" in his genealogy, so what difference does one more make?"
Posted: at 13-05-2010 06:06 PM (13 years ago) | Newbie
Reply
- jigaxsol at 13-05-2010 09:55 PM (13 years ago)
(m)
Dat na ur own wahala quoter Tongue
Posted: at 13-05-2010 09:55 PM (13 years ago) | Gistmaniac
Reply
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